Formatted Ibps Clerk Prelims 2020 Memory Based Mock Paper Based On 5th December Questions 1

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IBPS Clerk Prelims 2020 Memory Based Mock Paper (Based on 5th December) Directions (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the following questions based on the given passage. Some of the words are highlighted which would help you to answer some of the questions given. A good night’s sleep is utmost essential for overall good health. It is the time when the body rests, rejuvenates and recovers. An adult requires 7 to 8 hours of peaceful and quality sleep per day. Sleep deprivation can be defined as inability to complete the sufficient sleep-time required by the person. Research has shown that even one night of sleep deprivation is equivalent to being intoxicated. Intentional sleep deprivation is mostly seen in young people and teenagers who prefer entertainment over sleep. Many workaholics also consider sleeping as a waste of precious time which is not true. Many a time because of work commitments such as working in night shifts or long hours may also interfere with quality sleep that an individual requires. Medical issues such as chronic illnesses, depression and sleep disorders such as obstructive sleep apnea can also be the reason for sleep deprivation. You probably already have some understanding of the benefits of rest—and the costs of not getting it. Sleep allows us to consolidate and store memories, process emotional experiences, replenish glucose (the molecule that fuels the brain), and clear out beta-amyloid (the waste product that builds up in Alzheimer’s patients and disrupts cognitive activity). The most common sign and symptom of the fact that one is sleep deprived is fatigue, lethargy and feeling sleepy throughout the day. Other symptoms include mood disorders; sleep deprivation may lead to increasing irritability, desire to stay alone, rapid mood swings and more. Lack of sleep will also cause psychomotor instability meaning the person will find it difficult to focus and stand still at a place. Sleep deprivation will also cause issues with sight and hearing. An affected person may experience burning sensation in eyes, tingling and redness of eyes, light flashes and even hallucinations. He or she may also find it difficult to gauge distance at which a sound is originating. Other signs and symptoms of sleep deprivation include tingling sensations on the body, disorganization of thought and much more. Negative effects of sleep deprivation are many. It affects both physical and mental health of a person negatively. The most common effect of sleep deprivation is drowsiness, tiredness, mood swings, irritability and reduced alertness. Although scientific knowledge of the physiological effects of sleep deprivation is relatively recent but researchers now believe that sleep deprivation can lead to disorders such as depression. Both short term sleep deprivation and chronic long term sleep deprivation can be very dangerous for the health as it has a direct impact on functioning of both heart and brain of an individual. Sleep loss also blunted activity in brain regions that normally induce social engagement. During sleep, regeneration of neurons happens in the cerebral cortex. Thus in a sleep deprived individual the brain fails to function optimally.

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The simplest and easiest way to treat sleep deprivation is sleep more. Be it acute or chronic condition, a quality good night’s sleep will help an individual ________(A)_________ effectively. Fighting stress, eating a healthy and a balanced diet, avoiding alcohol are some other dos for a good night’s sleep. Certain medications can also interfere with one’s sleep thus consult your medical professional about the same. Exercising or indulging in an activity such as jogging, walk or swimming can also help one sleep better. Avoid usage of electronic gadgets before bedtime as they can interfere with one’ sleep. Spending time in natural sunlight, Yoga, meditation and breathing exercises can also help one sleep better at night. Treating underlying medical cause if any will also help one sleep better and avoid sleep deprivation. Q1. According to the passage, which among the following statements is true? (a) Sleep allows us to enhance our ability of acquiring knowledge and process emotional experiences. (b) An adult can function properly only with a quality sleep of 5-6 hours a day. (c) Sleep deprivation can be cured only with a help of a medical professional. (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) All are true Q2. What is/are the cause(s) of incompetency in a sleep deprived individual’s brain? (i) Clearing out of beta-amyloid that disrupts cognitive activity. (ii) Sleep deprivation leads to drowsiness, tiredness and reduced alertness. (iii) Reduction in the regrowth or repair of nervous tissues, cells or cell products in the cerebral cortex. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) Both (i) and (ii) (e) All (i) (ii) and (iii) Q3. Choose the most suitable phrasal verb to fill the given blank (A) to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. (a) drop back (b) break out (c) come forward (d) bounce back (e) fall out Q4. Which among the followings is true according to the context of the passage? (a) Fighting stress, eating a healthy and a balanced diet, avoiding alcohol cures depression (b) Sleep deprivation means a state caused by inadequate quantity or quality of sleep. (c) Sleep deprivation has negative effects on all the five senses of human body. (d) Treating prolong and underlying medical cause can cause sleep deprivation. (e) All are true Q5. How can one safeguard oneself from sleep deprivation? (i) Getting regular exercise during the day. (ii) Refraining from using electronic devices right before bed (iii) Limiting the consumption of alcohol (a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) Both (i) and (ii) (e) All (i) (ii) and (iii)

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Directions (6-7): Choose the most suitable word that depicts the meaning of the highlighted word. Q6. SUFFICIENT (a) Many (b) Adequate (c) Restricted (d) Limited (e) Wanting Q7. INDUCE (a) Hasten (b) Inspire (c) Encourage (d) Advocate (e) Evaluate Q8. Which of the following word depicts the opposite meaning of the given word REPLENISH? (a) Restore (b) Exhaust (c) Recharge (d) Accelerate (e) Modify Directions (9-13): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts. Choose the part of the sentence which may contain a grammatical error in it. If all the parts of the sentence are grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose option (e) i.e. “no error” as your answer choice. Q9. Slicing a cake between pieces (A)/ is a fun tradition that many (B)/ newlyweds like to (C)/ incorporate into their ceremonies. (D)/ No Error (E) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Q10. She had stayed up (A)/ all night because (B)/ she had received (C)/ bad news. (D)/ No error. (E) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Q11. He as well as (A)/ his friends (B)/ were going (C)/ for picking.(D)/ No Error (E) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

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Q12. The coaching industry in India (A)/ plays a pivotal role, (B)/ as it contributes significant (C)/ revenue to the education sector. (D)/ No Error (E) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Q13. If I don’t (A)/ turn on my (B)/ air conditioner, my (C)/ house was hot. (D)/ No error (E) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Directions (14-17): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. The options following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are correct then select ‘No improvement required’ as your answer. Q14. Everything is funny, as long as it is happening too somebody else. (a) has been happening for (b) is happening to (c) was happening too (d) could have happened to (e) No improvement required Q15. They recommend this book even though they himself had never read it. (a) they themselves had (b) they themself has (c) it itself had (d) one oneself has (e) No improvement required Q16. This is the house that Jack built it. (a) that Jack is building it (b) Which Jack built it (c) whom Jack built (d) that Jack built (e) No improvement required Q17. In no way do I agree with what you're saying. (a) In no way I do (b) In no way I don’t (c) No way I don’t (d) Do I in no way (e) No improvement required

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Directions (18-23): In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. According to some researchers, musical instruments came about ____(18)___, depending on the available materials, and, in some cases, by the stimulus of the clamor of battle. The definition of a musical instrument is quite simple: it is an instrument that was created or ____(19)____ to make musical sounds. It is important to remember that the history of musical instruments dates back to the beginning of human culture. This tells us that man has always been drawn to music. The earliest musical instruments were used for rituals. For example, the trumpet-like ones were used to signal success in a hunt, or drum-like instruments were used in religious ceremonies. Over time, cultures have developed the composition and performance of musical pieces for entertainment. Musical instruments have also ___(20)__ with the ever-changing applications. It appears that no one knows exactly where music came from. We are not talking here about who Elvis’ singing predecessors were, not even about when the first musical instrument was invented. Researchers who have been interested in the physics of instruments believe that musical devices have always ____(21)___ pretty much on the materials that were available to each civilization. In other words, people worked with what they had. In time, traditional poetry was ___(22)___ alongside human noise-makers and got rhythms to them. Again, there is no exact data to back this up, so no one knows exactly when the first song was born. However, adding stories to melodies became a tradition that was carried on to our days and it does not seem like it will ever go out of fashion. Q18. (a) deliberate (b) systematic (c) cautiously (d) randomly (e) anxiously Q19. (a) concise (b) adapted (c) prohibited (d) distributed (e) immense Q20. (a) subdued (b) evolved (c) Refine (d) Surge (e) diminished Q21. (a) relatively (b) suspected (c) depended (d) aligned (e) sustained

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Q22. (a) displayed (b) recited (c) elaborate (d) arranged (e) Remembered Directions (23-26): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Q23. The U.P. ordinance not only conflict(A) guaranteed fundamental rights but is also in violates(B) with existing(C) personal laws (a) ABC (b) BAC (c) CAB (d) ACB (e) None of these Q24. The deficit (A) changes in the sector brought in through the three laws have aggravated (B) the trust abrupt (C) of the government. (a) ABC (b) CAB (c) BAC (d) CBA (e) None of these Q25. The Chinese Communist Party initially aftermath (A) nationalism as a co-option embraced (B) in the strategy (C) of the Tiananmen Square massacre (a) None of these (b) CAB (c) ABC (d) BCA (e) CBA Q26. The Supreme Court has been asking States to reservation (A)quantifiable data to justify (B) their levels of produce (C). (a) None of these (b) CAB (c) ACB (d) BCA (e) CBA

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Directions (27-30): In the question given below, some sentences/phrases are given which have to be arranged in a proper sequence. Select the option which best defines the proper sequence and arranges the sentence in an appropriate way. Q27. (A) Sidestepping debate (B) And discussion in Parliament (C) Discontent over the (D) Is a result of (E) New farm laws (a) DEABC (b) EDABC (c) No rearrangement possible (d) AEBDC (e) CEDAB Q28. (A) Population-level vaccination plans (B) For COVID-19 (C) Expecting from (D) The outcomes we are (E) It is crucial to define (a) BCAED (b) CABED (c) EDCAB (d) DCABE (e) No rearrangement possible Q29. (A) WHO must (B) Work alongside (C) China in quickly (D) Origins of the virus (E) Uncovering the (a) EBCDA (b) CAEBD (c) EBACD (d) ACDBE (e) ABCED Q30. (A) Public activity should (B) Be available (C) To the public (D) Only information (E) Bearing a nexus to (a) DEABC (b) EDABC (c) No rearrangement possible (d) AEBDC (e) CEDAB

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Q31. Train A running at a speed of 36 km/hr crosses train B in 20 seconds. Find the speed of train B (in km/hr), if the sum of the length of train A & B is 600 meters and both trains running in the opposite direction. (a) 72 km/hr (b) 54 km/hr (c) 48 km/hr (d) 108 km/hr (e) 81 km/hr Q32. A invests Rs. X in a business. After four months B joined him with Rs. 2X and A double his investment. If at the end of the years total profit is Rs. 13950, then find the profit share of A? (a) 7250 Rs. (b) 7750 Rs. (c) 8750 Rs. (d) 6750 Rs. (e) 7050 Rs. Q33. A man invested an amount in two schemes in the ratio of 2 : 3 at the rate of 20% p.a. and 10% p.a. on compound interest respectively. If the man gets a total interest of Rs. 1208 after two years from both the schemes, the find amount invested by man? (a) 6000 Rs. (b) 4800 Rs. (c) 5000 Rs. (d) 4500 Rs. (e) 4000 Rs. Q34. The sum of the length of a rectangle and the side of a square is 72 meters. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 84 meters and the breadth of the rectangle is 18 meters, then find the measurement of the side of the square (in meters). (a) 48 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 60 (e) 30 Q35. The ratio of time taken by A, B & C to complete work alone is 4: 6 : 3 respectively. If all three together complete the work in 8 days, then find in how many days A alone complete three – fourth of the same work? (a) 12 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 24 (e) 18

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Directions (36–40): In the following questions, there are two equations in x and y. You have to solve both the equations and give answer (a) if x > y (b) if x < y (c) if x ≥ y (d) if x ≤ y (e) if x = y or there is no relation between x and y Q36. I. 2x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 II. 2y2 – 5y + 3 = 0 Q37. I. x2 + 21x + 110 = 0 II. y2 + 17y + 72 = 0 Q38. I. x2 = 4 II. y2 – 6y + 8 = 0 Q39. I. x² + 9x -22 = 0 II. 2y² - 7y + 6 = 0 Q40. I. 6x² + 5x + 1 = 0 II. 15y² + 11y + 2 = 0 Q41. The population of a village is decreased by 10% in the first year and then increased by 20% in the second year. Find the population of the village at the end of the second year if two years ago it was 15,000? (a) 16180 (b) 16200 (c) 16320 (d) 16360 (e) 16480 Q42. A shopkeeper marked up a shirt 50% above the cost price and allows successive discounts of 111/9% and 10% on it. If the difference between profit earned and discount given is Rs. 200 then find the marked price of the shirt? (a) Rs. 2100 (b) Rs. 3000 (c) Rs. 2400 (d) Rs. 3600 (e) Rs. 3300

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Q43. The downstream speed of a boat is 5 km/hr more than its upstream speed and the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 19: 5. Find the total time taken by boat to travel 42 km downstream and 31.5 km upstream? (a) 7 ½ hr (b) 8 hr (c) 9 hr (d) 9 ½ hr (e) 10 hr Q44. A container contains a mixture of two liquids P and Q in the ratio 5 : 3. If 16 liter of the mixture is taken out and replaced with liquid Q, then the new ratio of liquid P to liquid Q becomes 1: 1. Find the initial quantity of mixture in the container. (a) 80 L (b) 60 L (c) 70 L (d) 48 L (e) 96 L Q45. The ratio of the present age of A to B is 8: 5 and the average of the present age of B and C is 35 years. If five years ago, the sum of ages of A and B is 55 years, then find the difference between the present age of A and C. (a) 12 years (b) 5 years (c) 9 years (d) 8 years (e) 4 years Direction (46 – 50): The line graph given below shows the total number of posts (Photos + Videos) shared by six (A, B, C, D, E & F) people in December 2019. Read the data carefully and answer the questions. 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 A

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Q46. The total post shared by C is what percent less than the total post shared by D? (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 15% (d) 10% (e) 30% Q47. In January 2020 total posts shared by B & F is 12 and 15 more than previous month respectively, then find the total number of the post shared by B & F in January 2020? (a) 95 (b) 91 (c) 93 (d) 97 (e) 99 Q48. Find the average number of posts shared by A, C & F? (a) 42 (b) 48 (c) 40 (d) 36 (e) 44 Q49. Total photos shared by E is four more than total videos shared by him, then find total videos shared by E? (a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 28 (d) 22 (e) 30 Q50. If the ratio of total photos to total videos shared by B is 5: 9, then find total photos shared by B? (a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 12 (d) 14 (e) 16 Direction (51 – 65): What will come in the place of question mark in following questions. Q51. (? ÷ 5 ÷ 7) × 14 + 112 = 420 (a) 710 (b) 720 (c) 660 (d) 770 (e) 750

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Q52. (? )(4 ×16 ÷32+1) + 122 = 360 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 2 (e) 3 Q53. 50% of 128 + (a) 64 (b) 62 (c) 60 (d) 56 (e) 82

√16 × 2

4 =? +10

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√1331 + 11

Q54. (a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 16 (e) 15

√81+? = 27

Q55. (14)² + 179 + (5)² = (?)² (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40 (e) 22 Q56. 28.5× 34 + 2320 ÷ 8 = (36)2 - ? (a) 51 (b) 47 (c) 43 (d) 34 (e) 37 Q57. 47× 27 + 15600 ÷ 8 + 181 = ? (a) 3320 (b) 3420 (c) 3370 (d) 3400 (e) 3460 Q58. 112.5× 5 + 4560 ÷ 6 − 175 × 7 = ? (a) 103.5 (b) 91.5 (c) 97.5 (d) 110.5 (e) 115.5

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Q59. 80% of ? = √250 × 44 + 40% of 8500 (a) 80 (b) 120 (c) 150 (d) 180 (e) 240 594

Q60. ? × 40 ÷ 24 × 27 = 115 × (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5

2300 264

Q61. ? + 13× 50 = 420 + 45% of 800 + 220 (a) 300 (b) 350 (c) 400 (d) 450 (e) 250 Q62. 12 % of ? + 12.5% of 960 = 16 × 12 (a) 840 (b) 960 (c) 800 (d) 600 (e) 400 Q63. 15 × ? +20% of 450 = 360 (a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 16 (e) 18 3

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Q64. 75% of 4 × 9 × 1800 = ? + 600 (a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 250 (d) 480 (e) 540 Q65. ? % of 900 + 500 = 4 × 197 (a) 28 (b) 25 (c) 36 (d) 40 (e) 32

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Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Eight boxes are placed one above the another. Only two boxes are placed between box U and T. Only one box is placed between box T and R. Only two boxes are placed between box R and V. Box V is placed below box R. Three boxes are placed between S and Q, both S and Q are placed above box T. Box W is placed below box V. Not more than one box is placed between box S and box P. Q66. How many boxes are there between box T and box S? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three Q67. Which of the following box is placed immediately above box Q? (a) W (b) U (c) R (d) T (e) None of these Q68. Which of the following box is placed at the bottommost position? (a) W (b) U (c) R (d) T (e) None of these Q69. Which of the following box is placed immediately below box P? (a) W (b) U (c) R (d) T (e) None of these Q70. How many boxes are there between box W and box R? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

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Q71. In the word ‘BACKGROUND’ all consonants are written as their preceding letter and all vowels are written as their following letters. Then, how many letters repeated in the new arrangement? (a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three (e) More than four Directions (72-76): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given belowSix persons are arranged according to their weight in descending order from left to right. E is not the heaviest among all. A is heavier than F and C. F is heavier than B and D but not heavier than E. B and C are not the lightest among all. A is not just heavier than F. E is heavier than C, who is not the 3rd heaviest among all. Weight of the 2nd lightest person is 17kg. Total weight of B and C is 44kg. 2nd heaviest person is twice heavy to the one who is 2nd lightest. C is just lighter than F. Total weight of all the persons are 150kg. Q72. What may be the possible weight of F? (a) 30kg (b) 38kg (c) 24kg (d) 25kg (e) None of these Q73. The number of persons is heavier than F is same as the number of persons lighter than ___? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) B (e) None of these Q74. If D is 10kg lighter than B and F is 5kg heavier than C then what is the weight of A? (a) 23kg (b) 43kg (c) 30kg (d) 33kg (e) None of these Q75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group? (a) E-C (b) F-A (c) D-C (d) B-D (e) F-B

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Q76. Which of the following statement is true? (a) Only one person is lighter to C (b) D is the lightest among all (c) A is lighter to D (d) Weight of A is 50 kg (e) None is true Directions (77-80): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Give answer (a) If only conclusion I is true (b) If only conclusion II is true (c) If either conclusion I or II is true (d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true (e) If both conclusions I and II are true Q77. Statements: F > R ≥ T = E > W ≤ Q Conclusions: I. E < F II. Q ≥ T Q78. Statements: W = G ≥ H ≥ T = C ≤ V ≤ B Conclusions: I. T < G II. C = G Q79. Statements: K > I ≥ G > F ≤ T < R Conclusions: I. K > T II. R > F Q80. Statements: K < G ≤ D < C > R ≤ Y Conclusions: I. C > G II. K < D Q81. In the Given number ‘843576529’ How many such numerals will remain at the same position, when arranged in ascending order from left to right? (a) More than Four (b) Four (c) Two (d) Three (e) One Directions (82-86): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given belowEight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born in the month of December of 4 different years i.e. 1956, 1957, 1958 and 1959 either on 14th or 23rd but not necessarily in the same order. E was born in the even numbered year but not the eldest among all. More than two persons were born between E and D. H was born just after D. There are as many persons born before H as same as born after B. G was born before F and after A and they all were born on the same date.

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Q82. How many persons born before C? (a) One (b) None (c) Two (d) More than four (e) Four Q83. In which of the following year B was born? (a) 1956 (b) 1959 (c) Either 1956 or 1959 (d) 1957 (e) 1958 Q84. How many persons were born between A and F? (a) Three (b) Five (c) Two (d) One (e) None of these Q85. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group? (a) D (b) B (c) E (d) C (e) H Q86. The number of persons born between G and H is same as between ___ and ___? (a) E, F (b) B, H (c) C, B (d) D, G (e) None of these Directions (87-90): In each question below are given some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: Q87. Statements: Only a few Photo are Video. Only a few Frame are Video. All Frame are Camera. Conclusions: I. All Photo being Frame is a possibility. II. Some Photo are not Camera. (a) If both conclusions I and II follow. (b) If only conclusion II follows. (c) If only conclusion I follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If either conclusion I or II follows.

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Q88. Statements: Only a few City are Town. No Town is Village. All Village are Block. Conclusions: I. All City can be Village. II. Some Block are not Town. (a) If both conclusions I and II follow. (b) If either conclusion I or II follows. (c) If only conclusion I follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If only conclusion II follows. Q89. Statements: Some Bird are not Eagle. Some Eagle are Parrot. Conclusions: I. Some Parrot are Bird. II. No Parrot is Bird. (a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If either conclusion I or II follows. (c) If both conclusions I and II follow. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If only conclusion II follows. Q90. Statements: Only Banana is Apple. Some Banana are Papaya. Conclusions: I. Some Apple being Papaya is a possibility. II. All Banana can be Apple. (a) If both conclusions I and II follow. (b) If only conclusion I follows. (c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (e) If only conclusion II follows. Direction (91-95): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons D, E, F, G, M, O, P and S purchase some products one after another but not necessarily in the same order. At most two persons purchase before F. Only one-person purchase between D and F. P purchase just before S. One-person purchase between P and D. M purchase just before E. O purchase before G and after E. Q91. How many persons purchase after D? (a) None (b) Two (c) More than three (d) One (e) None of these Q92. Who among the following purchase just after G? (a) E (b) F (c) O (d) P (e) None of these

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Q93. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom starting from D, then find how many persons remains at the same position (excluding D)? (a) One (b) None (c) Two (d) Four (e) More than Four Q94. Who among the following purchase exactly between D and F? (a) E (b) O (c) M (d) S (e) None of these Q95. How many persons purchase between E and P? (a) Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) None (e) Two Q96. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “CHRISTMAS” which has as many letters between them as we have in the English alphabetical series (from both forward and backward direction)? (a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) None (e) More than three Direction (97-100): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: 39181258636425285264514947327259 Q97. How many 2’s is there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of more than 5? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three Q98. Which of the following number is seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement? (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 2 (d) 7 (e) 1

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Q99. If all the even digits are removed from the above arrangements then, which of the following digit will be tenth from the right end of the arrangement? (a) 9 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 3 (e) 7 Q100. How many such 1’s is there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three

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